1. What is the primary purpose of a data collection tool in health research?
A. To publish research findings
B. To systematically collect accurate and relevant data
C. To perform statistical analysis
D. To calculate sample size
Answer: B
2. Which of the following types of information is commonly collected in health research?
A. Facts
B. Knowledge
C. Judgments and attitudes
D. All of the above
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is an example of factual information?
A. Opinion about health services
B. Age and clinical history
C. Attitude toward vaccination
D. Satisfaction with treatment
Answer: B
4. Information regarding risk factors and healthy lifestyle belongs to which category?
A. Facts
B. Knowledge
C. Judgments
D. Demographics
Answer: B
5. Opinions regarding the quality of health services belong to which domain?
A. Facts
B. Knowledge
C. Judgments
D. Laboratory findings
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is an example of an attitude-related variable?
A. Age
B. Blood pressure
C. Wearing a seat belt
D. Hemoglobin level
Answer: C
7. Which data collection tool is mainly used for reviewing existing records?
A. Questionnaire
B. Observation guide
C. Data abstraction form
D. Interview schedule
Answer: C
8. A data abstraction form is commonly used to review:
A. Clinical records
B. Surveillance records
C. Registers
D. All of the above
Answer: D
9. Which data collection tool is most useful for documenting processes or activities?
A. Structured observation guide
B. Questionnaire
C. Laboratory form
D. Consent form
Answer: A
10. A structured observation guide usually consists of:
A. Narrative essays
B. Checklist of items
C. Statistical tables
D. Coding sheets
Answer: B
11. Which is the most commonly used data collection tool in biomedical research?
A. Observation guide
B. Questionnaire
C. Medical records
D. Register
Answer: B
12. In an interviewer-administered questionnaire, questions are asked by:
A. The participant
B. The data collector
C. The statistician
D. The laboratory technician
Answer: B
13. Which of the following is NOT an interviewer-administered method?
A. Face-to-face interview
B. Telephone interview
C. Computer-assisted interview
D. Self-completed paper questionnaire
Answer: D
14. Self-administered questionnaires are most appropriate when participants:
A. Cannot read or write
B. Are literate and able to understand the questions
C. Are critically ill
D. Require interpreter assistance
Answer: B
15. Computer-assisted questionnaires may be used in:
A. Interviewer-administered surveys only
B. Self-administered surveys only
C. Both interviewer-administered and self-administered surveys
D. Neither type of survey
Answer: C
16. The main goal of every data collection tool is to obtain:
A. Maximum number of questions
B. Valid responses
C. Long interviews
D. Multiple investigators
Answer: B
17. Which element ensures that respondents easily understand each question?
A. Coding
B. Clarity of words
C. Statistical analysis
D. Sample size
Answer: B
18. Which key element refers to the appropriate length of questions?
A. Context
B. Utility
C. Length
D. Constraints
Answer: C
19. The order of questions is important because it influences:
A. Ethical approval
B. Participant responses
C. Laboratory testing
D. Sample size
Answer: B
20. Which key element refers to the environment and wording in which questions are asked?
A. Coding
B. Context
C. Utility
D. Constraints
Answer: B
21. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major components of a data collection tool?
A. Introduction and conclusion
B. Identifiers
C. Instructions for data collectors
D. Statistical analysis report
Answer: D
22. The introduction of a questionnaire usually includes:
A. Data analysis
B. Study objectives and informed consent
C. Laboratory findings
D. Sample size calculation
Answer: B
23. The conclusion of a questionnaire should mainly:
A. Include statistical tests
B. Thank the participant for participation
C. Describe laboratory procedures
D. Present research findings
Answer: B
24. Why are coded identification numbers commonly used instead of participant names?
A. To simplify printing
B. To maintain confidentiality
C. To reduce questionnaire length
D. To improve statistical power
Answer: B
25. Which statement BEST summarizes the concepts covered in this section?
A. Data collection tools are designed to collect valid and reliable information on facts, knowledge, attitudes, and judgments. Common tools include data abstraction forms, structured observation guides, and questionnaires. Every good data collection tool should have clear wording, appropriate organization, and four essential components—introduction and conclusion, identifiers, instructions, and the body of the instrument—to ensure accurate and ethical data collection.
B. Questionnaires are the only data collection tool used in biomedical research, and identifiers should always include participants’ names.
C. Data collection tools mainly focus on statistical analysis rather than collecting valid information.
D. Structured observation guides are used only for laboratory diagnosis.
Answer: A
26. Which of the following is an example of an actual identifier?
A. Participant’s blood pressure
B. Participant’s name and address
C. Study objective
D. Questionnaire number
Answer: B
27. Why are coded identification numbers preferred in research?
A. To reduce sample size
B. To maintain participant confidentiality
C. To simplify statistical analysis only
D. To avoid informed consent
Answer: B
28. A composite identification code may include information about:
A. State
B. District
C. Village
D. All of the above
Answer: D
29. Instructions for data collectors mainly help to:
A. Reduce publication time
B. Ensure uniform data collection
C. Increase sample size
D. Perform statistical analysis
Answer: B
30. Which instruction is commonly included in questionnaires?
A. Tick only the response mentioned by the participant
B. Suggest the most appropriate answer
C. Skip informed consent
D. Interpret the participant’s response
Answer: A
31. Skip patterns in questionnaires are used to:
A. Reduce questionnaire printing costs
B. Skip questions that are not applicable to a respondent
C. Eliminate coding
D. Increase interview time
Answer: B
32. Different font styles are often used in questionnaires to distinguish:
A. Study objectives
B. Questions from interviewer instructions
C. Coding from statistics
D. Sample size from analysis
Answer: B
33. Which of the following is NOT a type of question item?
A. Open question
B. Closed question
C. Semi-open question
D. Randomized question
Answer: D
34. In an open-ended question, respondents:
A. Select one option from a list
B. Generate their own answers
C. Answer only “Yes” or “No”
D. Choose multiple responses
Answer: B
35. One major advantage of open-ended questions is that they:
A. Eliminate interviewer bias
B. Allow respondents complete freedom of response
C. Require less analysis
D. Prevent missing data
Answer: B
36. Open-ended questions are especially useful during:
A. Sample size estimation
B. Hypothesis generation
C. Data coding
D. Statistical testing
Answer: B
37. One disadvantage of open-ended questions is that they are:
A. Too simple
B. Difficult to code and analyze
C. Less flexible
D. Unable to stimulate memory
Answer: B
38. An open question with predefined response categories is mainly designed to:
A. Increase interview duration
B. Facilitate coding while allowing spontaneous responses
C. Eliminate interviewer participation
D. Reduce questionnaire length
Answer: B
39. Closed-ended questions differ from open-ended questions because they:
A. Allow unlimited responses
B. Provide predefined answer categories
C. Cannot be analyzed statistically
D. Are used only in qualitative research
Answer: B
40. Dichotomous questions usually have:
A. Three response options
B. Four response options
C. Two response options
D. Unlimited response options
Answer: C
41. Which of the following is a dichotomous response?
A. Excellent, Good, Fair
B. Always, Sometimes, Never
C. Yes, No
D. Low, Medium, High
Answer: C
42. The main advantage of dichotomous questions is that they:
A. Collect detailed opinions
B. Force a clear response
C. Allow multiple answers
D. Produce qualitative data only
Answer: B
43. A limitation of dichotomous questions is that they may:
A. Require extensive coding
B. Oversimplify complex issues
C. Increase interviewer bias
D. Be difficult to understand
Answer: B
44. Closed-ended questions with multiple options may allow:
A. Only one answer
B. More than one answer
C. Either one or multiple answers, depending on the question
D. No response
Answer: C
45. While designing multiple-choice questions, investigators should clearly specify:
A. Whether one or multiple responses are acceptable
B. The publication journal
C. The statistical software
D. The study budget
Answer: A
46. One advantage of multiple-option questions is that they provide:
A. Unlimited responses
B. Larger choice of responses
C. Only qualitative information
D. No coding requirement
Answer: B
47. One disadvantage of multiple-option questions is that respondents may:
A. Have difficulty selecting only one option
B. Be unable to read the question
C. Always choose multiple responses
D. Refuse participation
Answer: A
48. Quantitative questions require respondents to provide:
A. Opinions
B. Numerical answers
C. Open comments only
D. Yes or No responses
Answer: B
49. A question such as “How many times did you visit the clinic in the last 12 months?” is an example of:
A. Open-ended question
B. Dichotomous question
C. Quantitative question
D. Semi-open question
Answer: C
50. Which statement BEST summarizes the concepts covered in this section?
A. A well-designed questionnaire includes clear identifiers, interviewer instructions, and appropriately selected question types. Open-ended questions encourage unrestricted responses but are difficult to analyze, whereas closed-ended questions simplify coding and analysis. Multiple-option questions require clear instructions about acceptable responses, and quantitative questions generate numerical data that can be analyzed as continuous variables.
B. Open-ended questions should always replace closed-ended questions because they are easier to analyze.
C. All questionnaires should consist only of dichotomous questions.
D. Quantitative questions cannot be analyzed statistically.
Answer: A
51. Semi-open questions differ from closed-ended questions because they:
A. Have no predefined responses
B. Include an “Other, specify” option
C. Allow only numerical answers
D. Cannot be analyzed statistically
Answer: B
52. The main advantage of a semi-open question is that it:
A. Eliminates coding
B. Allows unexpected responses to be recorded
C. Prevents interviewer bias
D. Requires no data analysis
Answer: B
53. One limitation of semi-open questions is that:
A. They cannot collect opinions
B. Too many “Other” responses may complicate analysis
C. They always require qualitative analysis
D. They cannot be used in surveys
Answer: B
54. Which principle should always be followed while writing questionnaire items?
A. Use long academic sentences
B. Write short and precise questions
C. Include multiple concepts in one question
D. Use technical jargon
Answer: B
55. Which type of language is recommended when writing questions for the general population?
A. Highly technical language
B. Everyday simple language
C. Legal language
D. Scientific terminology only
Answer: B
56. Which of the following should be avoided while writing questions?
A. Short sentences
B. Simple words
C. Double negatives
D. Neutral wording
Answer: C
57. Which question is better designed?
A. Do you sometimes care for patients without washing your hands?
B. Do you systematically wash your hands before caring for each patient?
C. Don’t you agree that washing hands is important?
D. Why don’t you avoid unclean practices?
Answer: B
58. Why should double negatives be avoided in questionnaires?
A. They reduce sample size.
B. They confuse respondents and increase ambiguity.
C. They increase response rates.
D. They improve coding.
Answer: B
59. Which of the following violates the principle of asking one question at a time?
A. What is your age?
B. Did you refuse treatment because you feared side effects?
C. How many children do you have?
D. What is your occupation?
Answer: B
60. The question “Did you refuse treatment because you feared side effects?” should ideally be divided into:
A. Two separate questions
B. Three unrelated questions
C. One open-ended question
D. One quantitative question
Answer: A
61. Which of the following is the BEST example of a specific question?
A. Are you aware of HIV transmission?
B. Among the following practices, which can transmit HIV?
C. Tell me everything about HIV.
D. What do you know about diseases?
Answer: B
62. Why should questionnaire items be specific?
A. To reduce ethical approval
B. To obtain accurate and relevant responses
C. To reduce sample size
D. To eliminate coding
Answer: B
63. Which tone should be used while asking sensitive questions?
A. Judgmental
B. Emotional
C. Neutral
D. Persuasive
Answer: C
64. Which question demonstrates a neutral tone?
A. Have you been promiscuous during the last six months?
B. How many sexual partners have you had during the last six months?
C. Why do you engage in unsafe behavior?
D. Don’t you think your behavior is risky?
Answer: B
65. The order of questions in a questionnaire should resemble:
A. A legal document
B. A statistical report
C. A natural conversation
D. A laboratory protocol
Answer: C
66. Which sequence is recommended while arranging questions?
A. Complex to simple
B. Specific to general
C. Simple to complex
D. Sensitive to casual
Answer: C
67. Which type of questions should generally appear first?
A. Sensitive questions
B. Casual and simple questions
C. Technical questions
D. Opinion-based questions
Answer: B
68. Questions related to the same topic should be:
A. Randomly distributed
B. Grouped together
C. Placed at the end only
D. Avoided completely
Answer: B
69. If the questionnaire concerns a sequence of events, questions should be arranged:
A. Alphabetically
B. Randomly
C. Chronologically
D. By importance only
Answer: C
70. Long and complex questionnaires should include:
A. More technical terms
B. Periodic simple questions to provide a break
C. Fewer questions
D. Only open-ended questions
Answer: B
71. Asking similar questions at different points in the questionnaire mainly helps to:
A. Increase interview duration
B. Triangulate and verify responses
C. Reduce sample size
D. Confuse respondents
Answer: B
72. Which layout practice improves questionnaire readability?
A. Crowding questions together
B. Leaving adequate space between questions
C. Using very small font
D. Splitting questions across pages
Answer: B
73. Which font size is generally recommended for questionnaires?
A. 6–8 points
B. 9–10 points
C. 11–12 points
D. 16–18 points
Answer: C
74. Why should questions not be split across two pages?
A. It increases printing costs.
B. It interrupts readability and interview flow.
C. It changes sample size.
D. It affects ethical approval.
Answer: B
75. Which statement BEST summarizes the principles of writing and organizing questionnaire items?
A. Effective questionnaires use short, clear, and specific questions written in simple, neutral language. Each question should address only one concept, avoid ambiguity and double negatives, and be arranged in a logical order from simple to complex and from general to specific. Proper grouping, chronological sequencing, and an attractive layout improve respondent understanding, response quality, and the overall validity of collected data.
B. Long technical questions improve accuracy because respondents receive more information.
C. Sensitive questions should always be placed at the beginning to save time.
D. Questionnaire layout has little influence on response quality or data validity.
Answer: A
76. A researcher wants participants to describe all symptoms experienced before hospitalization without suggesting any answers. Which question type is MOST appropriate?
A. Dichotomous question
B. Open-ended question
C. Quantitative question
D. Semi-open question
Answer: B
77. During data analysis, investigators find hundreds of unique responses that are difficult to categorize. Which type of question MOST likely caused this problem?
A. Dichotomous question
B. Multiple-choice question
C. Open-ended question
D. Quantitative question
Answer: C
78. A survey asks, “Have you ever smoked cigarettes?” with response options “Yes” and “No.” This is an example of:
A. Semi-open question
B. Quantitative question
C. Dichotomous closed-ended question
D. Open-ended question
Answer: C
79. A questionnaire asks respondents to select all sources from which they obtain health information. The questionnaire should clearly specify that:
A. Only one answer is allowed.
B. Multiple responses are acceptable.
C. No responses are allowed.
D. The interviewer should choose the best answer.
Answer: B
80. Which question type is BEST suited for collecting age, weight, or number of hospital visits?
A. Open-ended question
B. Semi-open question
C. Quantitative question
D. Dichotomous question
Answer: C
81. A questionnaire asks, “Which complications did your child develop after measles?” and includes “Other, specify.” This is an example of:
A. Open-ended question
B. Dichotomous question
C. Semi-open question
D. Quantitative question
Answer: C
82. Which of the following is the BEST example of a poorly designed question?
A. What is your age?
B. How many cigarettes do you smoke per day?
C. Did you refuse treatment because you feared side effects?
D. How many times did you visit the hospital last year?
Answer: C
83. Which revision BEST improves the question “Did you refuse treatment because you feared side effects?”
A. Leave it unchanged.
B. Separate it into two independent questions.
C. Convert it into a Yes/No question only.
D. Ask it at the end of the interview.
Answer: B
84. Which wording is MOST appropriate when interviewing participants about HIV transmission?
A. Are you aware of HIV transmission?
B. Explain HIV.
C. Among the following practices, which can transmit HIV?
D. Tell me anything about HIV.
Answer: C
85. Which interviewer behavior is MOST likely to introduce response bias?
A. Using a neutral tone
B. Asking specific questions
C. Using judgmental language
D. Following skip instructions
Answer: C
86. Which of the following BEST illustrates interviewer neutrality?
A. Don’t you think smoking is harmful?
B. You should stop smoking, right?
C. How many cigarettes do you smoke per day?
D. Why do you continue smoking despite the risks?
Answer: C
87. Which sequence is MOST appropriate while arranging questionnaire items?
A. Sensitive → General → Simple
B. General → Specific → Sensitive
C. Specific → General → Casual
D. Complex → Simple → Casual
Answer: B
88. Identification questions are commonly placed:
A. Only at the beginning
B. Either at the beginning or at the end
C. Only after statistical analysis
D. In the middle of the questionnaire
Answer: B
89. When collecting information about events occurring over time, questions should follow:
A. Alphabetical order
B. Random order
C. Chronological order
D. Reverse order
Answer: C
90. Asking similar questions in different ways throughout a questionnaire is primarily intended to:
A. Increase questionnaire length
B. Verify consistency of responses (triangulation)
C. Reduce interview duration
D. Eliminate missing data
Answer: B
91. Which questionnaire layout feature MOST improves readability?
A. Very small font size
B. Minimal spacing between questions
C. Clearly separated sections and adequate spacing
D. Questions split across multiple pages
Answer: C
92. Why should response codes be standardized throughout a questionnaire?
A. To improve data entry and statistical analysis
B. To reduce interview time only
C. To simplify ethical approval
D. To reduce printing costs
Answer: A
93. Which coding practice is recommended?
A. Use different codes for “Yes” in different questions.
B. Maintain consistent codes for identical responses throughout the questionnaire.
C. Avoid coding until analysis.
D. Code only demographic variables.
Answer: B
94. Auto-coding refers to:
A. Automatic questionnaire translation
B. Using response option numbers as data entry codes
C. Automatic statistical analysis
D. Automatic participant recruitment
Answer: B
95. Before field implementation, the questionnaire should be reviewed by:
A. Subject experts
B. Statisticians
C. Data collectors
D. All of the above
Answer: D
96. During questionnaire review, statisticians mainly evaluate:
A. Printing quality
B. Coding system and analytical suitability
C. Ethical approval
D. Funding requirements
Answer: B
97. Which principle should guide the inclusion of every questionnaire item?
A. Investigator curiosity
B. Relevance to study objectives and analysis plan
C. Questionnaire length
D. Availability of printing space
Answer: B
98. Which activity should always be performed before using a questionnaire in the field?
A. Pilot testing and expert review
B. Final statistical analysis
C. Publication of the study
D. Preparation of the discussion section
Answer: A
99. A pilot test is mainly conducted to identify:
A. Journal reviewers
B. Ambiguous questions, flow problems, and practical difficulties
C. Sample size calculation errors
D. Funding limitations
Answer: B
100. Which statement BEST summarizes the entire lecture on Designing Data Collection Tools?
A. An effective data collection tool is carefully designed to obtain valid, reliable, and relevant information using appropriate question types and standardized procedures. It contains a clear introduction, identifiers, interviewer instructions, and well-structured question items. Questions should be simple, specific, neutral, logically ordered, and appropriately formatted. Standardized coding, expert review, pilot testing, and alignment with study objectives ensure high-quality data collection and improve the validity and reliability of biomedical research findings.
B. Open-ended questions should be used exclusively because they provide the greatest amount of information.
C. Questionnaire design has little influence on data quality if the sample size is large.
D. Coding and pilot testing are optional steps because statistical software can correct questionnaire errors automatically.
Answer: A
